I have an exam tomorrow and there are a couple of things I could use a little help with.

1) Does Kant actually offer any proof that empirical reality is objective? It seems as though he just presupposes/assumes that we all schematise the manifold in the same way, as in it is determined in some way that we apply certain categories to certain representations when synthesising. The faculty of apperception stuff is fine for explaining why it is that we experience things as unique individuals psychologically but I can't see how it offers objectivity.

2) How is it that choices that I make can affect the empirical/physical world? Seeing as Kant claims freedom comes from the noumenal self but that thw physical self is naturally determined. Surely if natural determinism is ttue across the board there is some issue with me/you being able to create causes or am I just imagining a problem here? Also, is saying that my noumenal self can affect the physical world not saying something positive about the noumenal (which he says elsewhere we can't/shouldn't do)?

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