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If 'A Theory Of Justice' is so great...
then how come in the years since it was written, despite dominating discussion in academic circles, inequalities have generally become LESS to the benefit of the worst well-off?
HUH?
I mean I know its meant to be a work of normative political theory and everything but surely if its as amazing and Important as my lecturers are always going on about then it would have had SOME impact on the real political world?
RIGHT?